Reply to comment

I am increasingly interested in the idea of neuronal arrangements being the distinguishing factor among people. I wonder if it is too easy to buy into the idea that arrangements have the final say in behavior. How does that account for similarities among people (is it that some of the arrangements are similar and others different) or that tastes change (behavior influencing arrangements?) It's true that probability wise there are many, many different arrangements that can occur to account for why everyone is different...but in the span of thousands of years of human history, is there no overlap at all? And if there is, how is it that someone from the present time could act similarly to a person from an ancient civilization based only on groups of neurons alone? I guess this ties into the ideas presented by jwong etc....