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While I understand that neurobiology and psychology at two separate entities, I keep coming back to psychology in reference to several topics we've discussed this week.  Namely, we discussed if, at one point, we as humans possessed "all stimuli."  While it was ruled out in class if we did, at one point, possess "all stimuli," I still find an argument in favor of the fact that we may have.  In terms of language recognition as an infant, psychologists believe that we can understand/parse/hear every phoneme in every language of the world.  Over time, at about six months, we have heard our own native language so much that we begin to lose the ability to separate certain tones that once sounded different to us.  For example, Japanese children forget that there was once a difference between the "r" and "l" sound because there is no audible difference in spoken Japanese.  However, at one point, researchers proved that they could tell a difference between these two phonemes.

So still I wonder, could we have had, at one point, the ability to perceive all stimuli in the world?  However, having been raised as a human and in the social constructs of humanity, we lost several aspects of 'sensing' that didn't seem particularly useful to us?  It seems probable, if looked at with the above conditions in mind.